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3 days ago
Newi Romania officially since 2011, state level on February 20 to commemorate the abolition of slavery centuries Gypsies hundred fifty-seven years ago, just before Memorial Day which sat at the instigation of Roma organizations and the broader community n Read more ... arrower circle. The liberation of Roma slaves in the Romanian principalities, other diversified industrialization can benefit in addition to economic reasons, gypsy folk movement started in the nineteenth century. century, the Eastern European region, which is the great historians of the second migration, which is named as Roma, and due to which Hungary is massively settled in this period of the Vlach Roma groups, joining the already settled here centuries romungrókhoz. Romanian Gypsies in the XIX-XX turn of the century In Romania, the European history in a unique way, the nineteenth century. So mid-century eradicated slavery: entered 1856 on February 20 in place of the law, which ruled in Moldavia "private" Gypsy slaves in the boyars possession of emancipation and mandatory release - before 1855 were told by this law of Wallachia.. The question arises, how is it that slavery retained after the European Enlightenment era, when under the 1856 Paris Peace Treaty declared the Danube itineraries of international transport, thereby exposing the shipping and trade in the countries to which it relates; or when Franz Liszt Hungary just wrote a study of the gypsies gypsy music. The answer, according to historians hypotheses socio-economic context of the history of the Romanian principalities, the evolution of search. The fact that the date of the abolition of slavery in the structure "sanctioned" remembrance days 28/2011-es declared in Romania, according to the law, very important political act of Roma integration, although it was long coming. A lot of things betrays the fact that the nineteenth century. first third of the century, the emancipation process in the river and a welcome closure, released by the laws of the Roma in Romania slaves received only after a half century as much attention to the state level memorial day devoted to him legally. Especially, of reports that Roma emancipation took place far from the emancipation process far from complete (this, of course, there are other obvious signs of Romania). Public mentality against Gypsies in Eastern Europe in general has moved very little in the nineteenth. compared to their judgment-century society: to this day the burden of history affects social status. The majority of society still tends to mostly treat them as second-class citizens, despite the formal structure (mostly sporadic) integration efforts - enough to mention here, for example the dump near Cluj Gypsies migrated case, the mayor who gettósítottak available Patarétre collected from several points in the city. It is essential, therefore, to remember - Roma and non-Roma circles alike - of this shameful period of the history, recalled: necessary to know the Gypsy slavery historical fact of which the Porrajmosszal together this people group's history inhumane, darkest, most tragic chapter of matter. History of slavery The story of science is still debate about how slavery began with the Gypsies in Romania - for centuries the existing socio-economic institution of slavery (in Romanian Robin rrobija Gypsy) origin, its nature is quite divided on the opinion of historians. The main issue of debate has also written the story between the two world wars, the Gypsies already arrived as slaves to the area, or the Romanian principalities Over time, the feudal system established in the midst of socio-economic conditions. The most widely accepted theory is still the traditional view of history - such as Nicolae Iorga story writer - Romas rabsorban already arrived at the side of the Tartar Mongol invasion in 1241-1242, and settled into their own free will (that then become slaves later here). This theory thus assumes that the Gypsies were enslaved even before the development of the feudal system was dictated by political and economic conditions in the Middle Ages. Bulgarian, Turkish, Tartar slaves initial period not only for Roma, but regal, monastic estates also referred to the boyars and contemporary sources. However, the Roma waves arriving eclipsed the Tartar Pechenegs, Kun, Serbian or Bulgarian slaves; contemporary charters slowly spit out a list of these - as the historians believe about slaves assimilated Roma in Hungary, the society is now identified them as Gypsies. So it was that the Romanian principalities XVI. century the name 'Gypsy became a synonym for slave. PN Panaitescu 1939 posed an alternative hypothesis, that the Roma slavery is far from long-standing. He suggested that instead of the origins of slavery are being pushed back to the time of the Mongol invasion chaos - about "relieved" with the Romanian history - try this institution to take its own evolution, and thus describe the creation. This innovative suggestion on the strength of the institution to look in the process of contemplating the bondage interprets economic and socio-historical contexts, such as in the era of history to explain the social and economic characteristics of, and not a particular standout, unique historical event connects. PN Panaitescu, it is the institution of the subordination of addiction is a form that has survived because of the socio-economic features of the Romanian feudal system produced it and also this system had an interest in maintaining - the historian of economic and social conditions of the period sufficient explain the Gypsy slavery in such a long-term megőrződésére. Historians agree that the Gypsies played an important role in the economy of the feudal system - which is probably not only generated, but also kept maintain the conditions that led to the Roma slavery. During the Middle Ages, the Gypsies in the Romanian principalities very important social category have been reported - even manorial Gypsies Gypsies or monastery, or Gypsies belonging to the boyars was involved. The feudal elite 'status, wealth and symbolic belonged to the Gypsy slaves in possession, but they are not so számszerűségükben, but rather enriched by the valuable work of the feudal lords. The economy as a whole depended on their jobs, whether it be gunsmith on, patkolókovácsokról locksmith on, tinker on, carver homes, teknővájókról, gold washing homes, üstkészítő Gypsies, basket makers homes, or have fun in Bear Dancers and minstrel musician gypsies. The principality is usually seen in the role of the Gypsies and the executioners várostakarítók responsibilities as well. Originating in the territory of today's Romania earliest source that refers to gypsies clear presence of 1,385 in October of I. Dan Romanian principalities, Wallachia's ruler donation letter to the newly completed Tismana Virgin Mary monastery donate together more with local assets with forty gypsy accommodation as well. The monastery Tismana cigányait was regularly mentioned in XIV.-XV. century charters. A deed of gift from 1388 of the shows that old Mircea of Wallachia Roial it founded Cozia monastery three hundred gypsy accommodation donated - which meant a large number of Roma slaves to a hotel usually a one big family since. Another of his era comes from the Transylvanian Principality first mention of the Gypsies: diploma a Fogarasföldről (that region at that time belonged to the Prince of Wallachia supremacy) derived According Costea Wallachian boyars, belonged to old Mircea hűbéresének reign Lower Vista, Upper vista and Alsóárpás half and seventeen tents Gypsy slavery ("ciganus tentorianus"). Moldavia in 1428, was first referred specifically to their presence, also a deed of gift, Good Alexander the Bistrita Monastery of gift by which thirty-one gypsy accommodation and twelve tatárviskót, and some Bulgarians - the same monastery, later charters kiviláglóan, has been the proliferation issue has Gypsy, Tatar and Bulgarian slaves . Similar letters Moldavian donation in remembrance of Visnevati Moldaviţa and monasteries belonging eladományozott Gypsies (1429's or 1434's donation letters datálhatóan). These contemporary property assets are thus already referred to as Gypsies - are emphasized by the fact that in this historical era monetary value of the eladományozott gypsy accommodation was very high. A contemporary example of diplomas attesting to the nearly half a century ruling Grand Voivode Stephen winner hadjárataiból often tens of thousands of Gypsy slaves returned to Moldavia (based on 1471, 1474 data), most of whom have donated to the monastery. Roma rights - rights over the Gypsies Photo of Romanian Gypsy leader "Bulibasa" the nineteenth century. Case. end Although Moldavia and Wallachia Gypsies were located in the lowest level of society, in spite of all this was an extremely important role in the economy because they have practiced crafts. Slavery was not initially written laws regulated, but the common law. The official documents only start using the slave (rob) term from the 1600s - before the name 'Gypsy in the description of this social status. Code (Pravila lui Vasile Lupu), Vasile Lupu Moldavian Voivode issued in 1646 have been summarized in the provisions relating to article forty slaves. Istically the 1818 Wallachian Penal Code § § example of such legal revelations we find: "Any Gypsy born into slavery." And also for this comes from one of the periods called one of the most shocking statements "Gypsies in the principality of unclaimed property.". In 1837 Mikhail Kogălniceanu Romanian historian recalls her childhood in the City Jasz, the capital of Moldavia what he sees: ... I saw human beings who wore chains on their arms and legs, while others took iron strap over his forehead, while others wore iron collar again. The Gypsies legnyomorultabbjainak flogging and other cruel punishment even had divisions: starved, hung over the fire, solitary confinement, naked to the ongoing, threw them in ice-cold river. Ridicule the sanctity of marriage and from all other family wingmen: the women separated from their husbands, the girls are torn away, snatched away from their parents, and children, ripped from the mother bosom, and was sold to them by traders from Romania variety of regions of like cattle. The slave-owners' interests is therefore well-defined laws protected - they have given them absolute power over the lives of slaves in almost every moment. Development of the gypsy life of the slaves depended hűbérúrtól, is only able to marry with his consent - and if you happen to be married were two different parties owning lord, you both consent was required. If you were married without the consent feudal, separated them, their children as useful labor, property assets were distributed among themselves as gentlemen. Freely bought and sold them, even their animals - different ages varied goods. For example, in 1785 a Moldavian Gypsy woman fifty, a Gypsy man seventy-five for silver - Children under the age of fourteen years were half as much. The value of the slave woman's beauty, knowledge of dance to be dependent, but the voice of Chef science or fortune-telling ability is imprinted on the animal. In the case of Roma women in the profession in their proficiency, they crafted was the deciding factor in value-added. The slaves marriages between them is very urged especially within the feudal estate, as the unborn child, as well as the other cattle offspring, enriched hands. There was also the practice of mating (as in the case of the black slaves in the American South) when the outstanding men and women used physical characteristics and paired according to plan as breeders. The Gypsy was practically slaves to life right in - but so was the liege lord responsibility to ensure maradásukról life, at least in theory. Wallachia and Moldavia thus far stricter and say, inhumane rules had over the Gypsy slaves than in Transylvania under the Hungarian Crown's rule under which it was incomparably better social situation of the Roma - except for the parts that are required for certain periods temporarily Wallachia and Moldavia vaivodes fell under its authority. The Gypsies have been in the 1400s, the Crown became serfs, and this status was preserved during the time of Turkish occupation. Become serfs of the Crown meant that their right was practically walking about freely in the country, the areas covered by the Crown to settle temporarily, have had their own internal tribal autonomy, they were not liable to military service, were given religious freedom. These rights in the minds of the Transylvanian Gypsies certain taxes paid by the Hungarian Kingdom, but that amount was much lower than those paid by the resident population. Transylvania XVI. Gypsy century Vojvodina has been established - but the nomadic renunciation, established Gypsies lost the privileges listed. The Habsburg Transylvania times are systematically sought to resettle the Roma - partial success. The abolition of slavery - Roma emancipation Only the nineteenth century. second-third century conceptualized as the Romanian principalities of Western-trained, enlightened, due to a new generation of Romanian entellektüell to the slavery of the past shameful remnant of barbarism, which must be eliminated as soon as possible. The abolitionist movement in the 1830s strengthened from: Grigore Alexandru Ghica 1837 Moldavian prince Gypsy families in thousands of state-run released, the 1840s and gained their freedom in the Moldavian monastery and royal slaves. In these years of slave liberation movement, more and more sympathizers enjoys in Romania - which is very much trying to identify with the values of the West at this time, and that France holds the model of modernization of that period; In 1848, the Bucharest university slave laws were burned. Thanks to the efforts of modernization is gradually being phased in between 1843 and 1856 Gypsy slavery in Romania, before the estate Gypsies, and the monasteries cigányait released and most recently owned by the boyars occupants. Slave village's Romania in the 1850s . Moldavia on 22 December 1855 adopted the law on the abolition of slavery: it was just one developer Kogălniceanu; Barbu stirbt in February 1856, the prince of Wallachia also vote to abolish slavery. . Consequently, 1856 February 20, finally has been published in the law that abolishes Gypsy slavery in the still feudal ownership, and fulfilling that by freeing the slaves: this ending abolíciós act all the inhabitants of Roma origin in the Romanian principalities live officially granted equal rights. Under the Regulation, the freed slaves owners pay ten gold gypsy compensation for their property at all - to get yourself popularity, many Boyar also stopped to redress. The act of releasing Gypsies settle bound by the nomads (the princely state Gypsies So) free choice thanks to which the municipality settle on, also making them permanent residence mandatory - slaves in the boyars owned and install the nearby towns of local management and villages, taking into account stakeholder selection. These laws have the gypsy slaves liberation, this is almost two decades of important social reforms of the last section were in Romania - after striking change in the Romanian principalities observed social mobility involving the Roma: the egyenjogúsítással initiated social empowerment of Roma, which is obviously also means that the earlier part of their traditional occupation leaving other professions are trying to succeed. Also Mihail Kogălniceanu writes in 1891: ". Though not passed yet fifty years since the equality-telling, gypsies craftsmen, artists, high military officers, great leaders, doctors, and even parliamentary spokespersons also gave us" In fact, the 1856 planned and launched social transformations essence formulated. Quarter of a million slaves estimated to be affected by the release. The emancipation understandably triggered a mass exodus, but not for that reason alone started the migration, but also possibly due to the invasion of Eastern Europe, the industrial revolution, which ousted after the traditional Gypsy occupations demand. First the neighboring countries, and from there to Western Europe and later immigrated to America en masse in the Vlach Roma - the liberated most of them hoped to be equal to their permanent Romanian soil. This is the nineteenth century. century migration of Gypsies is considered the second great migration of historian researchers. Hungary also came with the wave of mass Vlach Roma groups. Seven hundred and fifty years after the resounding no social reform can be said that emancipation would be completed in Romania, the Roma had really come to the real emancipation and comforting - as is the statement of the whole Eastern European region is not true. One and a half centuries after the abolition of slavery in the Gypsy Roma still stigmatized by mainstream society, their judgment is still dominated by the old, entrenched stereotypes, unfortunately, still prevails in social exclusion. As for changes in the közmentalitásnak also repeatedly requested the Gypsy Roma NGOs to make the historical fact of slavery in the Romanian curriculum in schools.
3 days ago
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Prahlad  1 (PUBLISHED IN THE EMPLOYMENT NEWS / ROZGAR SAMACHAR DATED 19.07.2014) STAFF SELECTION COMMISSION NOTICE Combined Higher Secondary Level (10+2) Examination, 2014 Closing Date:19.08.2014 Date of Examination: 02.11.2014 09.11.2014 “GOVERNM Read more ... ENT STRIVES TO HAVE A WORKFORCE WHICH REFLECTS GENDER BALANCE AND WOMEN CANDIDATES ARE ENCOURAGED TO APPLY” IMPORTANT INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES 1. Staff Selection Commission will hold on Sundays, the 2nd November,2014 and 9th November,2014 (02.11.2014 & 09.11.2014), an All India Open Competitive Examination for recruitment to the Group-“C” posts of Data Entry Operator in Pay Band-1, Grade Pay Rs. 2400 and Lower Division Clerk in Pay Band-1, Grade Pay Rs.1900 in various Central Government Ministries / Departments / Offices. Minimum education qualification for the exam is 12th Standard Pass from recognized board/university. The exam will comprise of a written objective type Examination followed by Data Entry Skill Test/Typing Test. 2 The Commission will not undertake detailed scrutiny of applications for eligibility and other aspects at the time of written examination and, therefore, the candidature is accepted only provisionally. The candidates are advised to go through the requirements of educational qualification, age etc. and satisfy themselves that they are eligible before applying. Copies of supporting documents will be sought only from those candidates who qualify for the Skill Test. At the time of scrutiny if any claim in the application is not found substantiated, the candidature will be cancelled. The Commission’s decision shall be final. 3. BEFORE APPLYING, CANDIDATES IN THEIR OWN INTEREST ARE ADVISED TO GO THROUGH THE DETAILED INSTRUCTIONS CONTAINED IN THIS NOTICE AND ALSO AVAILABLE ON THE WEBSITE OF THE COMMISSION( http://ssc.nic.in) CAREFULLY. 4. Candidates seeking reservation benefits available for SC/ST/OBC /PH/EXS must ensure that they are entitled to such reservation as per eligibility prescribed in the Notice. They should also be in possession of the certificates in the prescribed format in support of their claim at the time of Skill Test. Copies of the certificate, etc. will be sought at the time of Skill Test. 5. Candidates with visual disability of 40% or more only would be considered as VISUALLY HANDICAPPED (VH) for availing reservation for VH, wherever, such reservation is applicable. 6. Central Government civilian employees claiming age relaxation should be in possession of a certificate in the prescribed format from their office in respect of the length of continuous service which should be not less than three years in the immediate period preceding the closing date for receipt of application. They should continue to have the status of Central Government civilian employees from the Date of application till the time of appointment, in the event of their selection. 7. FEE: RUPEES ONE HUNDRED ONLY(Rs 100.00) payable through CRF stamps for Off line application or SBI Challan or Online payment through SBI payment portal in the 2 case of Online application. Fee is exempted for all Women candidates and candidates belonging to Scheduled Caste, Scheduled Tribe, Physically Handicapped and Ex-Servicemen eligible for reservation, as per Government orders. 8. CLOSING DATE: 19.08.2014 (upto 5:00 P.M.). For candidates residing in Assam, Meghalaya, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Manipur, Nagaland, Tripura, Sikkim, Jammu & Kashmir, Lahaul & Spiti District and Pangi Sub Division of Chamba District of Himachal Pradesh, Andaman & Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep and for candidates residing abroad – 26.08.2014(upto 5:00 P.M.). APPLICATIONS RECEIVED LATE WILL BE REJECTED and no correspondence will be entertained in this regard. COMMISSION WILL NOT BE RESPONSIBLE FOR POSTAL DELAY. 9. Only a single application will be entertained. IN CASE OF MULTIPLE ONLINE APPLICATIONS, THE LAST COMBLETED APPLICATION WILL BE ACCEPTED. IN THE CASE OF MULTIPLE OFF-LINE APPLICATIONS, THE CONCERNED REGIONAL OFFICE WILL ACCEPT ANY ONE OF THE APPLICATIONS AT ITS DISCRETION. 10. MOBILES INCLUDING EARPHONES AND CONNECTED CORDS AND OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGETS ARE BANNED WITHIN THE PREMISES OF THE EXAMINATION CENTRES. POSSESSION OF SUCH EQUIPMENT WHETHER IN USE OR IN SWITCHED OFF MODE, DURING THE EXAMINATION WILL BE CONSIDERED AS USE OF UNFAIR MEANS. CANDIDATURE OF SUCH CANDIDATES WILL BE CANCELLED. THEY WILL BE LIABLE FOR FURTHER ACTION INCLUDING INITIATION OF CRIMINAL PROCEEDINGS AND DEBARMENT FROM COMMISSION‟S EXAMINATION UPTO 3 (THREE) YEARS. 11. THE COMMISSION ENCOURAGES CANDIDATES TO APPLY ON-LINE. SUBMISSION OF „ON-LINE‟ APPLICATION AVOID DATA DISCREPANCIES. NON/WRONG DELIVERY OF ADMIT CARDS etc. AS ADMIT CARD CAN BE DOWNLOADED FROM THE WEBSITE OF THE COMMISSION. CANDIDATES DESIROUS OF SUBMITTING ON LINE APPLICATIONS MAY DO SO. SUCH CANDIDATES SHOULD RETAIN THEIR REGISTRATION NUMBER ASSIGNED TO THEM ON LINE FOR CORRESPONDENCE WITH THE COMMISSION. THEY SHOULD NOT SUBMIT PRINT OUTS OF THEIR APPLICATION TO THE COMMISSION. THE FACILITY OF ON-LINE APPLICATION REGISTRATION WILL BE AVAILABLE AT WEBSITE http://ssc.online.nic.in and http://ssconline2.gov.in. upto 19.08.2014 (5:00PM)PAYMENT THROUGH OFFLINE CHALLANS CAN BE MADE UPTO 21.08.2014. 12 Candidates must carry at least one photo bearing IDENTITY PROOF in original such as Driving Licence, Voter Card, Aadhaar Card, Identity Card issued by University/College, Income Tax Pan Card etc to the examination centre, failing which THEY SHALL NOT BE ALLOWED TO APPEAR IN THE EXAMINATION. 13 In case the scanned photograph(s) appearing in the Commission’s copy of Admission certificate and/ or on Attendance sheet is not clear invigilators are required to verify the identity of the candidate with reference to the photo ID Proof and get colour photographs pasted on the Commission’s copy of Admission certificate and/ or on Attendance sheet. Accordingly candidates should bring 3 passport size colour photographs. Candidates not carrying photographs will not be allowed to appear in the examination. 2. VACANCIES / RESERVATION : (i) Tentative vacancies for the post of Data Entry Operators and Lower Divisional Clerk are 1006 and 991 respectively. . (ii) PREFERENCE FOR MINISTRY/DEPARTMENT/OFFICE WILL BE TAKEN FROM THE CANDIDATES QUALIFIED FOR SKILL TEST/TYPING TEST AT THE TIME OF SKILL TEST/TYPING TEST. (iii) Reservation for SC/ST/OBC/ExS/PH etc. categories is available as per extant Govt. Orders. (iv) One Arm Affected (OA), One Leg Affected (OL), One arm and one leg affected (OAL), Both Leg Affected (BL),Hearing Handicapped (HH) and Low Vision (LV) are eligible for the post of Data Entry Operator. 3 (v) One Arm Affected (OA), Both Legs Affected (BL), One Leg Affected (OL), One arm and one leg Affected (OAL), Blind (B), Low Vision (LV) & Hearing Handicapped (HH), are eligible for the post of Lower Division Clerk. (VI) All the posts carry All India Service Liability (AISL) i.e. the candidate, on selection, may be asked to serve anywhere in the country. 3. NATIONALITY / CITIZENSHIP: A candidate must be either: (a) a citizen of India, or (b) a subject of Nepal, or (c) a subject of Bhutan, or (d) a Tibetan refugee who came over to India, before the 1st January,1962, with the intention of permanently settling in India, or (e) a person of Indian origin who has migrated from Pakistan, Burma, Sri Lanka, East African countries of Kenya, Uganda, the United Republic of Tanzania(Formerly Tanganyika and Zanzibar),Zambia, Malawi, Zaire, Ethiopia and Vietnam with the intention of permanently settling in India. Provided that a candidate belonging to categories (b), (c), (d) and (e) above shall be a person in whose favour a certificate of eligibility has been issued by the Government of India. A candidate in whose case a certificate of eligibility is necessary may be admitted to the Examination but the offer of appointment will be given only after the necessary eligibility certificate has been issued to him/her by the Government of India. 4(A) AGE LIMIT: 18-27 years as on 01.08.2014 (Candidates born not before 02-08-1987 and not later than 01-08-1996. Note I : Candidate should note that only the Date of Birth as recorded in the Matriculation / Secondary Examination Certificate or an equivalent certificate available on the date of submission of application will be accepted by the Commission and no subsequent request for its change will be considered. 4 4.(B) Permissible relaxation of Upper age limit prescribed under para 4(A) above : Category-Codes for claiming Age Relaxation as on the date of reckoning : Code No. Category Age-Relaxation permissible beyond the Upper age limit 01 SC/ST 5 years 02 OBC 3 years 03 PH 10 years 04 PH + OBC 13 years 05 PH + SC/ST 15 years 09 Ex-Servicemen ( Unreserved / General ) 03 years after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the closing date. 10 Ex-Servicemen ( OBC ) 06 years ( 3 years + 3 years) after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the closing date. 11 Ex-Servicemen ( SC/ST ) 08 years ( 3 years + 5 years) after deduction of the military service rendered from the actual age as on the closing date. 15 Central Govt. Civilian Employees (General/Unreserved ) who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on Closing date. Up to 40 years of age 17 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( OBC ) who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on Closing date. Up to 43 years of age 19 Central Govt. Civilian Employees ( SC/ST ) who have rendered not less than 3 years regular and continuous service as on Closing date. Up to 45 years of age 21 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir (Unreserved/General ) 5 years 22 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir( OBC ) 8 years 23 Candidates who had ordinarily been domiciled in the State of Jammu & Kashmir( SC/ST) 10 years 24 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and who are not remarried (Unreserved/General ) Up to 35 years of age 25 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and who are not remarried( OBC ) Up to 38 years of age 26 Widows / Divorced Women / Women judicially separated and who are not remarried( SC/ST ) Up to 40 years of age 5 27 Defence Personnel disabled in operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof (Unreserved/General ) 5 years 28 Defence Personnel disabled in operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof( OBC ) 8 (5+3) years 29 Defence Personnel disabled in operation during hostilities with any foreign country or in a disturbed area and released as a consequence thereof (SC/ST) 10 (5+5) years 33 Service Clerks in the last year of their colour service in the Armed Forces (Unreserved/General ) Up to 45 years of age 34 Service Clerks in the last year of their colour service in the Armed Forces ( OBC ) Up to 48 years of age 35 Service Clerks in the last year of their colour service in the Armed Forces ( SC/ST ) Up to 50 years of age 36 Retrenched census employees of Office of Registrar General of India (Unreserved/General) (They will be considered only for offices under RGI in their order of merit and subject to availability of vacancies ) 3 years plus length of service rendered by them in connection with census, before retrenchment , and Weightage of past service. 37 Retrenched census employees of Office of Registrar General of India ( OBC ) ( They will be considered only for offices under RGI in their order of merit and subject to availability of vacancies ) 3 years plus length of service rendered by them in connection with census, before retrenchment , and Weightage of past service + 3 years 38 Retrenched census employees of Office of Registrar General of India ( SC/ST ) ( They will be considered only for offices under RGI in their order of merit and subject to availability of vacancies ) 3 years plus length of service rendered by them in connection with census, before retrenchment , and Weightage of past service+ 5 years NOTE-I : Ex-servicemen who have already secured employment in civil side under Central Government in Group ‘C’ & ‘D’ posts on regular basis after availing of the benefits of reservation given to ex-servicemen for their re-employment are NOT eligible for fee concession or for claiming benefits of reservation under EXS category. However, they are eligible for age relaxation only. NOTE-II : The period of "Call up Service" of an Ex-Serviceman in the Armed Forces shall also be treated as service rendered in the Armed Forces for purpose of age relaxation as per rules. NOTE-III : For any serviceman of the three Armed Forces of the Union to be treated as Ex-Serviceman for the purpose of securing the benefits of reservation, he must have already acquired, at the relevant time of submitting his application for the Post / Service, the status of ex-serviceman and /or is in a position to establish his acquired entitlement by documentary evidence from the competent authority that he would complete specified term of engagement with the Armed Forces within the stipulated period of one year from the Closing Date (i.e. 19.08.2014), or otherwise than by way of dismissal or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency. 6 NOTE-IV:- The closing date of application will be treated as the date of reckoning of OBC status of the candidate and also for determining the creamy layer status. EXPLANATION :An 'ex-serviceman' means a person – (i) who 'has served in any rank whether as a combatant or noncombatant in the Regular Army, Navy and Air Force of the India Union, and (a) who either has been retired or relieved or discharged from such service whether at his own request or being relieved by the employer after earning his or her pension; or ((b) who has been relieved from such service on medical grounds attributable to military service or circumstances beyond his control and awarded medical or other disability pension; or ((c) who has been released from such service as a result of reduction in establishment; or (ii) who has been released from such service after completing the specific period of engagement, otherwise than at his own request, or by way of dismissal, or discharge on account of misconduct or inefficiency and has been given a gratuity; and includes personnel of the Territorial Army, namely, pension holders for continuous embodied service or broken spells of qualifying service; or (iii) personnel of the Army Postal Service who are part of Regular Army and retired from the Army Postal Service without reversion to their parent service with pension, or are released from the Army Postal service on medical grounds attributable to or aggravated by military service or circumstance beyond their control and awarded medical or other disability pension;or (iv) Personnel, who were on deputation in Army Postal Service for more than six months prior to the 14th April, 1987;or (v) Gallantry award winners of the Armed forces including personnel of Territorial Army;or (vi) Ex-recruits boarded out or relieved on medical ground and granted medical disability pension. NOTE- V: AGE CONCESSION IS NOT ADMISSIBLE TO SONS, DAUGHTERS AND DEPENDENTS OF EX-SERVICEMEN. NOTE-VI: Service Clerks in the last year of their colour service in the Armed Forces, i.e. only those who are due for release from the Army during the period 20-08-2014 to 19-08-2015 are eligible for age-relaxation. Such candidates are not entitled to any concession in fee. Such candidates will be eligible to compete only for vacancies in Armed Forces Headquarters and Inter-Service Organisation, which are not reserved for Ex-servicemen, in their order of merit and subject to availability of vacancies. NOTE -VII: As per Supreme Court direction dated 24.02.1995 in Appeal No.731-69 of 1994, Age relaxation will be available for Group-‘C’ posts in the O/o RGI(Registrar General of India) for retrenched Census employees as under (i) Age relaxation by 3 years plus length of service rendered by them in connection with census, before retrenchment , (ii) Weightage of past service. 7 4(C) : PROCESS OF CERTIFICATION AND FORMAT OF CERTIFICATES: Candidates who wish to be considered against vacancies reserved or seek age-relaxation must submit requisite certificate from the competent authority, in the prescribed format at the time of Skill Test. Otherwise, their claim for SC/ST/OBC/PH/ExS/ status will not be entertained and their candidature/applications will be considered under General (UR) category. The formats of the certificates are annexed. Candidates claiming OBC status may note that certificate on creamy layer status should have been issued on or after 20-08-2011 three years before the last date of receipt of application i.e. 19.08.2014. Certificate issued up-to the completion of the last tier of examination i.e. skill test will be accepted by the Commission. NOTE : Candidates are warned that they may be permanently debarred from the examinations conducted by the Commission in case they fraudulently claim SC/ST/OBC/Ex-S / PH status. 4(D) Visually handicapped (VH) with disabilities of forty percent or above and Cerebral Palsy candidates can avail the assistance of a SCRIBE in the Written Examination and PASSAGE READER for Skill Test, subject to such requests being made in the application form. Question Papers and Answer Sheets will NOT be provided in BRAILLE. No attendant will be allowed with such candidates inside the examination premises. Provision of Compensatory Time : The Visually Handicapped/Cerebral Palsy candidates will be allowed compensatory time of 40 minutes in the written examination the details of which are given in para 8 under the Heading “Scheme of Examination.” NOTE: Persons with visual disability of less than forty percent will not be considered as visually handicapped persons. One eyed candidates and partially blind candidates who are able to read the normal Question Paper set for all the candidates with or without magnifying glass and who wish to write/indicate the answer with the help of Magnifying Glass will be allowed to use the Magnifying Glass in the Examination Hall and will not be entitled to a Scribe. Such candidates will have to bring their own Magnifying Glass to the Examination Hall. 5. EDUCATIONAL QUALIFICATIONS: ( As on 01.08.2014) Must have passed 12th Standard or equivalent examination from a recognized Board or University. NOTE-I: As per Ministry of Human Resource Development Notification No. 44 dated 01.03.1995 published in Gazette of India edition dated 08.04.1995, the Degree obtained through open Universities/Distance Education Mode needs to be recognized by Distance Education Council, IGNOU. Accordingly, unless such Degrees had been recognized for the period when the candidates acquired the relevant qualification, they will not be accepted for the purpose of Educational Qualification. NOTE – II : Candidates who have not acquired but will acquire the educational qualification and acquire documentary evidence from the Board/University in support thereof as on 01.08.2014 will also be eligible. NOTE- III : All candidates who are called for appearing at the Skill Test will be required to produce the relevant Certificate in Original such as Mark sheets, Provisional Certificate, etc. as proof of having acquired the minimum educational qualification on or before 01.08.2014 failing which the candidature of such candidate will be cancelled by the Commission. The candidates who are able to prove, by documentary evidence that the result of the qualifying examination was declared on or before the cut off date and he/she has been declared passed, will also be considered to have the required Educational Qualification. 8 6. MODE OF PAYMENT: FEE PAYABLE Rs. 100/-(Rupees One Hundred only) (i) For the candidates sending the application by POST: The candidates submitting Paper application should pay the fee by means of "Central Recruitment Fee Stamps(CRFS)"only. CRFS are available at the counter of all Departmental Post Offices of the country. Recruitment Fee Stamps should be pasted on the application form in the space earmarked for the purpose and got cancelled from the Counter of Post Office of issue with the date stamp of the Issuing Post Office in such a manner that the impression or the cancellation stamp partially overflows on the Application Form itself, taking care at the same time that the impression is clear and distinct to facilitate the identification of date and Post Office of issue at any subsequent stage. After getting the Recruitment Fee Stamps cancelled from the Post Office, the candidate must submit their application to the concerned Regional Office/Sub Regional Offices of the Commission in the usual manner after completing other formalities. Application with CRFS not cancelled by the post office will be rejected outright. (ii) For the candidates submitting their applications On-line: The candidates submitting their applications on-line should pay the requisite fee as per instructions in Annexure-II(B). NOTE I: Fee once paid will not be refunded under any circumstances. NOTE II: Fee paid by modes other than CRFS for off-line applications and through SBI Challan /Payment portal as indicated above in case of online application will not be accepted and the applications of such candidates will be rejected forthright and the payment made shall stand forfeited. Candidates submitting their application online shall make their payment through the State Bank of India as per instructions (Annexure-II B ). NOTE III: Candidates may please note that non-cancellation of stamps from the concerned Post Office in the manner indicated above, will lead to rejection of his/her application form. Therefore, it is in the interest of candidates that they get the CRFS cancelled from the concerned Post Office. 7. CENTRE OF EXAMINATION A candidate must carefully indicate the centre in the Application Form in respect of the Examination. A candidate must submit his/her application only to the concerned Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission under whose jurisdiction the Centre selected by him / her falls. Application received in any other Regional/Sub Regional Office of the Commission will be rejected summarily. The applications should be addressed to the Regional / Sub-Regional Offices of the Commission as indicated in the table below:- Sl.No. Examination Centres & Centre Code Address to which the applications should be sent 1 2 3 1. Bhagalpur(3201), Patna (3206) Muzaffarpur (3205), Agra(3001), Bareilly(3005), Gorakhpur (3007) , Kanpur (3009), Meerut(3011), Varanasi (3013), Regional Director(CR), Staff Selection Commission, 21-23, Lowther Road, Allahabad, 9 Allahabad(3003), Gaya(3203), Lucknow(3010) Uttar Pradesh-211 002. 2. Kolkata(4410), Midnapur(4413), Port Blair (4802), Sambalpur(4609), Gangtok(4001), Jalpaiguri (4408), Bhubaneshwar(4604), Cuttack (4605), Ranchi(4205), Chinsurah ( 4405 ), Siliguri (4415) Berhampore(4403), Malda(4412) Keonjhargarh (4606). Bardhaman ( 4404 ) Regional Director (ER), Staff Selection Commission,1st MSO Building,(8th Floor) 234/4 . Acharya Jagadish Chandra Bose Road, Kolkata, West Bengal-700020 3. Bangalore(9001), Thiruvananthapuram (9211), Kochi(9204), Thrissur(9212), Gulbarga(9005), Mangalore(9008), Dharwar(9004),Kozhikode (Calicut) (9206) Regional Director(KKR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st Floor, “E” Wing, Kendriya Sadan, Koramangala, Bangalore, Karnataka-560034 4. Delhi(2201), Jaipur(2405), Jodhpur(2406), Bharatpur (2403) Kota(2407),Bikaner(2404), Udaipur(2409), Ajmer(2401), Alwar(2402), Sriganganagar(2408), Dehradun (2002), Haldwani(2003),Almora (2001),Haridwar (2005) Regional Director (NR), Staff Selection Commission, Block No. 12, CGO Complex, Lodhi Road, New Delhi-110504 5. Guwahati (Dispur)(5105),Itanagar(5001), Dibrugarh(5102), Jorhat(5107),Silchar(5111), Imphal(5501), Shillong(5401), Aizwal(5701), Kohima(5302), Churachandpur( 5502 ) Agartala(5601)Tura (5402), Goalpara(5104 ), Tezpur ( 5112), Lakhimpur ( 5109 ) Regional Director(NER), Staff Selection Commission, HOUSEFED Complex, West End Block, Last Gate, Beltola Basistha Road, Dispur, Guwahati, Assam-781 006. 6. Hyderabad(8002), Guntur(8001), Kurnool(8003), Rajahmundry(8004),Tirupati(8006), Coimbatore (8202), Chennai(8201),Madurai(8204),Puducherry (8401), Tirunelveli(8207), Tiruchirapalli(8206), Vishakhapatnam (8007) Regional Director (SR), Staff Selection Commission, EVK Sampath Building, 2nd Floor, College Road, Chennai, Tamil Nadu-600006 7. Aurangabad(7202), Mumbai(7204), Kolhapur (7203), Nagpur(7205), Panaji(7801), Pune(7208), Ahmedabad(7001), Vadodara(7002),Rajkot (7006), Nashik (7207),Amravati (7201),Surat (7007) Regional Director (WR), Staff Selection Commission, 1st Floor, South Wing, Pratishta Bhawan, 101 M.K. Road, Mumbai, Maharashtra-400020 8. Ambikapur(6201), Indore(6006), Jabalpur(6007), Jagdalpur(6203), Chindwara(6003), Guna(6004), Bilaspur(6202)Chattarpur(6002), Mandsaur(6010), Jhabua(6008), Khandwa(6009), Rewa(6012), Raipur(6204), Bhopal(6001), Gwalior(6005), Dy. Director (MPR), Staff Selection Commission, “Nishant Vila” F. Jalvihar Colony, Raipur, Chhatisgarh-492001 9. Jalandhar(1402), Leh(1005), Chandigarh(1601), Jammu(1004), Srinagar(J&K)(1007), Shimla(1203), Bhathinda (1401),Hamirpur (1202), Anantnag (1001), Baramula(1002), Rajouri(1006)Kargil (1008), Dodda (1009),Amritsar( 1404) Patiala (1403) Dy. Director (NWR), Staff Selection Commission, Block No. 3, Gr. Floor, Kendriya Sadan, Sector-9, Chandigarh-160017 NOTE I: No change of Centre of Examination will be entertained. NOTE II: The Commission reserves the right to cancel any Centre and ask the candidates of that centre to appear from another centre. Commission also reserves the right to divert candidates of any centre to some other Centre to take the examination. 8. SCHEME OF EXAMINATION: The examination will consist of a Written Examination and Skill Test for the post of Data Entry Operator and Written Test and Typing Test for the post of Lower Division Clerk on Computer. 10 (A) SCHEME OF THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION AND SYLLABUS The written examination will consist of one objective type paper as shown below : NOTE-I : The Paper will consist of Objective Type- Multiple choice questions only. The questions will be set both in English & Hindi for Part-I, III & IV. NOTE-II: There will be negative marking of 0.25 marks for each wrong answer. NOTE- NOTE-III Answer Keys will be placed on Commission’s website after written examination. Any representation regarding answer key received within 7 days of uploading of the answer key will be scrutinized and the decision of the Commission in this regard will be final. NOTE NOTE-IV :Commission reserves the right to introduce additional stage of examination which would be notified at suitable time, if considered necessary. SYLLABUS General Intelligence: It would include questions of both verbal and non-verbal type. The test will include questions on Semantic Analogy, Symbolic operations, Symbolic/Number Analogy, Trends, Figural Analogy, Space Orientation ,Semantic Classification, Venn Diagrams, Symbolic/Number Classification, Drawing inferences ,Figural Classification ,Punched hole/pattern-folding & unfolding , Semantic Series, Figural Pattern – folding and completion, Number Series, Embedded figures, Figural Series, Critical Thinking, Problem Solving, Emotional Intelligence, Word Building, Social Intelligence, Coding and de-coding, Other sub-topics, if any Numerical operations. English Language : Spot the Error, Fill in the Blanks, Synonyms/Homonyms, Antonyms, Spellings/ Detecting Mis-spelt words, Idioms & Phrases, One word substitution, Improvement of Sentences, Active/Passive Voice of Verbs, Conversion into Direct/Indirect narration, Shuffling of Sentence parts, Shuffling of Sentences in a passage, Cloze Passage, Comprehension Passage. Quantitative Aptitude: ARITHMETIC Number Systems: Computation of Whole Number, Decimal and Fractions, Relationship between numbers Fundamental arithmetical operations: Percentages, Ratio and Proportion, Square roots, Averages, Interest (Simple and Compound), Profit and Loss, Discount, Partnership Business, Mixture and Alligation, Date of Exam Part Subject Maximum Marks Total Duration /Timing Total Duration/Timing for Visually Handicapped/Cerebral Palsy candidates including compensatory time. 02.11.2014 & 09.11.2014 (Sundays) I General Intelligence (50 questions) 50 2 Hours 10.00 A.M. to 12.00 Noon or 2:00 PM to 4:00 PM 2 Hours 40 Minute 10.00 A.M. to 12.40 Noon or 2:00 PM to 4:40 PM II English Language (Basic Knowledge) ( 50 questions ) 50 III Quantitative Aptitude (Basic Arithmetic Skill) (50 questions) 50 IV General Awareness (50 questions) 50 11 Time and distance, Time and work. ALGEBRA: Basic algebraic identities of School Algebra and Elementary surds (simple problems) and Graphs of Linear Equations. GEOMETRY: Familiarity with elementary geometric figures and facts: Triangle and its various kinds of centres, Congruence and similarity of triangles, Circle and its chords, tangents, angles subtended by chords of a circle, common tangents to two or more circles. MENSURATION: Triangle, Quadrilaterals, Regular Polygons, Circle, Right Prism, Right Circular Cone, Right Circular Cylinder, Sphere, Hemispheres, Rectangular Parallelepiped, Regular Right Pyramid with triangular or square Base TRIGONOMETRY: Trigonometry, Trigonometric ratios, Complementary angles, Height and distances (simple problems only) Standard Identities like sin20 + Cos20=1 etc., STATISTICAL CHARTS : Use of Tables and Graphs: Histogram, Frequency polygon, Bar-diagram, Pie-chart General Awareness: Questions are designed to test the candidate‟s general awareness of the environment around him and its application to society. Questions are also designed to test knowledge of current events and of such matters of everyday observation and experience in their scientific aspect as may be expected of an educated person. The test will also include questions relating to India and its neighbouring countries especially pertaining to History, Culture, Geography, Economic Scene, General policy and scientific research. NOTE-1: For VH candidates of 40% and above visual disability and opting for SCRIBES there will be no component of Maps/Graphs/Diagrams/Statistical Data in the General Intelligence & Reasoning / Quantitative Aptitude. (B) SKILL TEST for DATA ENTRY OPERATOR: Data Entry Speed of 8,000 (eight thousand) Key Depressions per hour on Computer. The „Speed of 8000 key depressions per hour on Computer‟ will be adjudged on the basis of the correct entry of words/key depressions as per the given passage and the duration of the said Test will be 15 (Fifteen) minutes and printed matter in English containing about 2000-2200 strokes/key-depressions would be given to each candidate who would enter the same in the Computer. The “Data Entry Speed” Skill Test would be of qualifying nature. Candidates allowed to take this test, will have to qualify the test at the prescribed speed on Computer, to be provided by the Commission or the agency authorized by the Commission to conduct such skill test at the Centre/venue so notified. Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination, as may be fixed by the Commission at its discretion, will be called for skill test. The Commission may also at its discretion, fix qualifying marks in each component of the written examination. Provided that candidates belonging to Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes, OBC, ExS and PH may be called for the Skill Test by the Commission by applying relaxed standards if the Commission is of the opinion that sufficient number of candidates of these categories are not likely to be available for the skill test on the basis of qualifying criteria for general category candidates in order to fill up the vacancies 12 reserved for these categories (i.e. SC, ST, PH, ExS and OBC). Only such candidates who qualify in the Skill Test at a speed of not less than 8000 key depressions per hour will be eligible for being recommended for appointment as per their position in the merit list. None of the candidates including PH candidates who qualify in the written part of the examination will be exempted from the Skill Test as passing of the skill test is a precondition and one of the essential qualifications for appointment to the post of Data Entry Operator. NOTE: Central Government civilian employees availing age relaxation must furnish “No Objection Certificate” from their Employer/Office at the time of the skill test, failing which the benefit of age relaxation will not be allowed to such candidates and they will not be allowed to appear in the Skill Test. The skill test will be held at the Commission's Regional Offices or other centers as may be decided by the Commission. (C) Typing Test for LDCs: Typing Test will be conducted for those candidates who qualify in the Written Examination. Such Typing Test will be conducted in English or Hindi and candidates while applying for the Examination, will have to indicate his/her choice/option for Skill Test Medium in the Application Form. Typing Test will be of qualifying in nature. It will be administered on the Computer, to be provided by the Commission or any agency authorized by the Commission. Candidates opting for English medium should have typing speed of 35 words per minute and those opting for Hindi medium should have typing speed of 30 words per minute. The speed will be adjudged on the accuracy of typing on the Computer of a given text passage in 10 minutes. Visually Handicapped candidates (with 40% disability and above) will be allowed 30 minutes.(whether to include Cerebral Palsy or not) Passage Dictators will be provided to VH candidates for the Typewriting test. The Passage Dictator will read out the passage to VH candidate within the allotted time period. NOTE-I :35 w.p.m. and 30 w.p.m. corresponds to 10500 key depressions per hour/9000 key depressions per hour respectively. NOTE-II: OH candidates who claim to be permanently unfit to take the typewriting test because of a physical disability may, with the prior approval of the Commission, be exempted from the requirement of appearing and qualifying at such test, provided such a candidate submits a Certificate in the prescribed format to the Commission from the competent Medical Authority, i.e., the Civil Surgeon declaring him/her to be permanently unfit for the Typewriting Test because of a physical disability. NOTE-III: If an OH candidate who submits a Medical Certificate from the Medical Board attached to VRC for PH persons or from the Medical Board attached to Special Employment Exchange for PH persons, his/her claim for exemption from Typewriting Test would be accepted. However, if, she/he submits Medical 13 Certificate from Civil/Orthopaedic Surgeon, his/her case would be referred to a Medical Board in a Government Hospital or Medical Board attached to VRC/Special Employment Exchange for PH persons for clearance. OH Candidates seeking exemption from Typing test on medical ground must substantiate their claim by furnishing the relevant Medical Certificate in the prescribed format as published in this Notice (Annexure-IX ) at the time of Typing Test. Otherwise their claim for seeking exemption from Typing Test will not be entertained by the Commission. NOTE-IV : If any candidate does not opt for any medium for typing, his option will be deemed to be for English medium. NOTE-V Only those candidates who secure at least the minimum qualifying marks in the written examination, as may be fixed by the Commission at its discretion, will be called for Typing Test. The Commission may also, at its discretion, fix the minimum qualifying marks in each component of the written examination. 9. GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS TO BE COMPLIED BY THE CANDIDATES IN THE WRITTEN EXAMINATION (i) Candidates must write the papers/indicate the answers in their own hand. (ii) In the question papers, wherever necessary, the Metric systems of weights and measures only will be used. (iii) Use of mobile phone, calculator and other electronic gadgets and their accessories is not permitted. Therefore, these should not, be brought inside the Examination Premises / Venue. (iv) Candidature of any candidate found to possess mobile phones or any other means of wireless communication or related accessories either in working or switched off mode, shall be cancelled forthwith. This will also invite further penal action as per the policy of the Commission. (v) The Candidates are advised to desist from use of any unfair method in the examination hall which will render them ineligible for further consideration for the examination and also lead to their debarment from Commission‟s examinations in future beside inviting criminal prosecution. OMR Type of Answer Sheets will be supplied by the Commission for recording their answer of multiple choice objective type questions. (a) Part A & Part B of OMR sheet to be filled in Blue/Black Ball point pen only. (b) Candidates should write/properly shade his/her name, Roll No, Ticket No. Name of the Examination as mentioned in the Admission Certificate and Test form number correctly at relevant places in OMR sheet, affix his left thumb impression and signature and furnish requisite declaration failing which his answer sheet will not be evaluated and zero mark awarded. (vi) If any candidate belonging to visually handicapped (VH) category does not write and shade the category code properly, they will not be treated as belonging to VH category. 10. MODE OF SELECTION : Candidates will be shortlisted for the skill test on the basis of their performance in the Written Examination. Candidates who qualify in the skill test will be recommended for appointment by the Commission on the basis of their performance in the Written Examination. Allocation of candidates will be made to User Departments depending upon their merit position 14 and the option exercised by them. Provided that SC, ST, OBC, and PH candidates, who are selected on their own merit without relaxed standards, alongwith candidates belonging to other communities, will not be adjusted against the reserved share of vacancies. Such SC, ST, OBC, and PH candidates will be accommodated against the general/unreserved vacancies as per their position in the overall Merit List. The reserved vacancies will be filled up separately from amongst the eligible SCs, STs, OBCs, and PH candidates which will, thus, comprise of SC , ST, OBC, and PH candidates who are lower in merit than the last general candidate on merit list of unreserved category but otherwise found suitable for appointment even by relaxed standard. An Ex-Serviceman or Physically Handicapped (OH/VH/HH) category candidate who qualifies on the basis of relaxed standards viz. age limit, experience or qualifications, permitted number of chances in written examination, extended zone of consideration, etc. is to be counted against reserved vacancies and not against general vacancies. Such candidates may also be recommended at the relaxed standards to the extent the number of vacancies reserved for them, to make up for the deficiency in the reserved quota, irrespective of their rank in the order of merit. In so far as cases of Ex-Serviceman are concerned, deduction of the military service rendered from the age of Ex-Servicemen is permissible against the reserved or unreserved posts and such exemption cannot be termed as relaxed standards in regard to age. NOTE-I : The candidates applying for the examination should ensure that they fulfill all the eligibility conditions for admission to the examination. Their admission at all the stages of examination will be purely provisional, subject to their satisfying the prescribed eligibility conditions. If, on verification, at any time, it is found that they do not fulfill any of the eligibility conditions, their candidature for the examination will be cancelled by the Commission. 11. RESOLUTION OF TIE CASES In case where more than one candidate secure the equal aggregates marks, tie will be resolved by applying the following methods one after another:- i) Marks in first part of the written examination. ii) Date of birth, with older candidates placed higher. iii) Alphabetical order in which first names of the candidates appear. 12. HOW TO APPLY : Applications must be submitted only in the prescribed format ( Annexure-I ) On-line or by Post. Detailed instructions as in Annexure - II A or Annexure - II B, may be referred to for postal applications and on-line applications respectively. 13. Preference Candidates will be required to indicate in the application form for the Examination, the order of preference for the posts of Data Entry Operator (D) in Grade Pay of Rs.2400/- and Lower Division Clerk (L) in Grade Pay of Rs.1900/-and other equivalent posts. Candidates without option for posts will not be considered for selection irrespective of their merit position. PREFERENCE FOR MINISTRY/DEPARTMENT/OFFICE WILL BE TAKEN AT THE TIME OF SKILL TEST/TYPING TEST. 14. ADMISSION TO THE EXAMINATION: All candidates who apply in response to this advertisement by the CLOSING DATE will be assigned Roll numbers which will be placed on the website of the concerned Regional Office at least two weeks before the date of the examination. A candidate must write his/her Roll number 15 along with his/her name, date of birth and name of the examination while addressing any communication to the Commission. Communication from the candidate not furnishing these particulars shall not be entertained. Admission Certificates (ACs) for the Examination indicating the time table and also venues of examination will be issued to all applicants about two weeks before the date of examination. IF ANY CANDIDATE DOES NOT RECEIVE ADMISSION CERTIFICATE FOR THE EXAMINATION ONE WEEK BEFORE THE DATE OF EXAMINATION, HE/SHE MUST IMMEDIATELY CONTACT THE CONCERNED REGIONAL/SUB REGIONAL OFFICE OF THE COMMISSION WITH PROOF OF HAVING SUBMITTED HIS/HER APPLICATION. (In case of Applications submitted under Certificate of Posting, the Date-Stamp of the Post-Office concerned should be clearly legible). FAILURE TO DO SO WILL DEPRIVE HIM/HER OF ANY CLAIM FOR CONSIDERATION. CANDIDATES ALSO HAVE THE OPTION TO DOWNLOAD THE ADMISSION CERTIFICATES FROM THE WEBSITE OF CONCERNED REGIONAL/SUB REGIONAL OFFICES. SUCH FACILITY WILL BE AVAILABLE ABOUT TWO WEEKS BEFORE THE EXAMINATION. Candidates who applied on-line but are unable to download their Admission Certificates or do not receive their Admission Certificates at least one week before the date of the examination should contact the concerned Regional Office with details such as Registration ID, Transaction ID of SBI Payment Portal, copy of challan, etc. for obtaining the Admission Certificates. Details of deficiency in application, if any, will also be placed on the Commission’s website ( http://ssc.nic.in ) about two weeks before the examination. NOTE-I: Candidates are advised that it is compulsory to carry a Photo ID such as Voter’s ID, Driving License, ID Cards issued by Government or other Offices where the candidates may be working. Candidates without such ID cards will not be allowed entry into the examination halls/Skill Test venues. NOTE-II : Candidates should bring 3 passport size photographs for affixing it in the Commission‟s copy of Admission Certificate in the presence of Invigilator, if required. Candidates not carrying photographs will not be allowed to appear in the examination. 15. Action against candidates found guilty of misconduct: Candidates are warned that they should not furnish any particulars that are false or suppress any material information while filling in the application form. Candidates are also warned that they should neither attempt to alter or otherwise tamper with any entry in a document or the attested certified copy submitted by them nor submit a tampered/fabricated document. If there is any inaccuracy or any discrepancy, in filling OMR Sheet, they will be awarded “ZERO” Without prejudice to criminal action/debarment from Commission’s examination wherever necessary, candidature will be summarily cancelled at any stage of the recruitment in respect of candidates found to have indulged in any of the following:- (i) Possession of MOBILE PHONE & ACCESSORIES AND OTHER ELECTRONIC GADGETS WITHIN THE PREMISES OF THE EXAMINATION CENTRES, WHETHER IN USE OR IN SWITCH OFF MODE AND ON PERSON OR OTHERWISE. (ii) Involved in malpractices. (iii) Using unfair means in the examination hall. (iv) Obtaining support for his / her candidature by any means. (v) Impersonate/ Procuring impersonation by any person. 16 (vi) Submitting fabricated documents or documents which have been tampered with. (vii) Making statements which are incorrect or false or suppressing material information. (viii) Resorting to any other irregular or improper means in connection with his/her candidature for the examination. (ix) Misbehaving in any other manner in the examination hall with the Supervisor, Invigilator or Commission‟s representatives. (x) Taking away the Answer Sheet with him/her from the examination hall, or passing it on to unauthorised persons during the conduct of the examination. (xi) Intimidating or causing bodily harm to the staff employed by the Commission for the conduct of examination. (xii) To be ineligible for the Examination by not fulfilling the eligibility conditions mentioned in the Notice. (xiii) Candidature can also be cancelled at any stage of the recruitment for any other ground which the Commission considers to be sufficient cause for cancellation of candidature. 16. COMMISSION’S DECISION FINAL The decision of the Commission in all matters relating to eligibility, acceptance or rejection of the applications, penalty for false information, mode of selection, conduct of examination(s) and interviews, allotment of examination centres, selection and allotment of posts/organizations to selected candidates will be final and binding on the candidates and no enquiry/correspondence will be entertained in this regard. 17 17: Success in the examination confers no right of appointment unless government are satisfied after such enquiry as may be considered necessary that the candidate is suitable in all respects of appointment to the service/post. 18. COURTS JURISDICTION Any dispute in regard to this recruitment will be subject to courts/tribunals having jurisdiction over the place of concerned Regional/Sub-Regional Office of the SSC where the candidate has submitted his/her application. 17 APPLICATION FORM ATTACHED SEPARATELY 18 19 APPLICATION FORM ATTACHED SEPARATELY 20 Annexure – II A INSTRUCTIONS FOR FILLING UP THE APPLICATION I. The Commission uses standard application form for all its examinations. Therefore, please read the instructions given in the Notice of Examination and also given below carefully before filling up the application form, in your own interest. II. Use only blue/black ball pen to write in the boxes, i.e., III. Instructions have been given for most items in the application itself which should be gone through carefully before filling up the boxes. For items for which instructions are not available, further instructions given below may be gone through carefully. IV. Please go through the instructions given below for filling up each item numbered in the application form:- 1. Name of the Examination Centre and 2. Centre Codes Refer to para-7 of the Notice of the Examination. 12.1. Code for seeking age relaxation. Refer to para 4 B of the Notice of the Examination. 13. Preference for Posts ‘L’ for Lower Division Clerk (Grade Pay 1900) ‘D’ for Data Entry Operator (in Grade Pay 2400) You are advised to be careful in exercising your preference as in the event of your getting selected for both the posts, you will be considered for the posts in the order of your merit and preference for each post.You are also advised that you will not be considered for posts for which you have not excercised option. 15 VH candidates and such PH candidates as are entitled to scribes should specify the medium in which they desire to take the Written Examination. Scribes will be arranged by the Commission accordingly. 16. If a Candidate belongs to one of the minority communities notified by Govt. namely Muslims, Christians, Sikhs, Buddhists, or Zoroastrians (Parsis), Write Code-08. 17. Educational Qualification and Subject Code: See Annexure – X Use ‘Others’ if any particular Educational Qualification or Subject is not assigned a code. 18. Address for communication Write your complete communication address including your Name in English in capital letters or in Hindi with blue/black ball pen. Do not forget to write 6 digit PIN in the boxes. 19. Photograph Paste your recent photograph of size 4cmx5cm. Do not staple and do not get the photo attested. Please note that your application shall be rejected summarily without photograph. Box for Roll Number to be left unfilled (blank) by the candidate. IMPORTANT: It is in the interest of the candidate to furnish e-mail ID and/or mobile number to enable the Commission at its option, to send call letter and any other information.
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Anas
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Tc Wow
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Ammar Here's what I think about Redmi 1S, Its high performance really put up to the test, With price lower compared to the rest, Dual-SIM dual-standby function nonetheless, To sum up, it's just simply THE BEST! Should I go on or you're already impressed? I Read more ... 'm a cheapstake, that I confess, Hope to own it by winning this contest, So just pick mi, I'll hang it proud on my chest, Parading it this raya, so everyone would be impressed. Hanis Humaira' Anas Azlan
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3 days ago
Hinata 徐秀菊 Yang Wan Ying It is good & I like it..... CAN U give me 1!!! REDMI 1S!! i'm waiting u~~
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Bringing 2 phones out every single day? That's so
3 days ago
Emanduel Lim Shiow Chinn Guat Bee Tan Life made up of series of judgments on insufficient mobile offering, and if we waited for never ending new mobile in the markets, the greatness of Redmi 1S will flow past us.
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Sheryl
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In conjunction with U Weekly, Grand Copthorne Wate
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Sheryl Congratulations! Celebration treats on the way :)
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Chong
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Bringing 2 phones out every single day? That's so
3 days ago
Soo RedMi 1S = RM1S = Ringgit Malaysia, I Save. Super cheap and yet amazing phone. Iven Liau Ian Lim
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Phong
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Chong Clarence Hs Nee, Soon Suon Heng Convenience at thoughts, performance in hands; more connectivity, more friends......
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Chong
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John
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Spectre
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Chong
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Gavin
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Byron
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Danny Wooly Ho Choi Shoi
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Denise Thanks jennie
Jennie J. Watson Renard
Beware facebook friends and family. Pass this on. this person is pretending to be representing FB And saying you have won 100,000 dollars. They are trying to get your info. and when you don't give it they cut you off. Im going to try and transfer th Read more ... e chat I had with this person. 32 minutes ago. The name she gave is Vick humour . That was probably not. and she could have been a man . Who knows. Here goes. hello Hi Vicky My name is vick author an agent from Facebook company. Nice meeting you. And you also I am authorized to send you the friend request by Mr Mark Zuckerberg the Founder and CEO of face book k we can be friends I am sent to contact you today to pass you a vital information concerning your Facebook account.the face book team. what is it I am delighted to inform you that your name was selected among the 20 lucky winners who won the ongoing promo. And that is why i contacted you to inform you about your winnings. ? Your name was selected among the 20 lucky winners who won the sum of $100,000.00 United State Dollars and I am your claim officer, i want to know if you are ready to claim your winnings. what is it going to cost me Some pics were inserted here. but they didn't copy for me. that is how past winners you are talking to someone who lives on SS only the fedex courier will to deliver your check to your home with the information bellow: Your Name: Your Mobile Number: Your Home Address: Your Age: FB has all of that info all ready. yes but the info is for the fedex to deliver your check to your home address Im sorry. I never did anything to win any money. and if by chance I have won any, then FB should just send it to me. Thank you but I have been scamed before. so once bitten if you know what I mean. THIS IS WHERE THEY CUT ME OFF. Message cannot be sent based on either the receivers' privacy settings or yours.. Chat Conversation End IF ANYONE CONTACTS YOU , DON;T GIVE THEM ANY INFO. ..
4 days ago
Adrian Tan Kelvin Arvind K Nair its time for a change Redmi 1S 2 sim one phone best spec best price to be the best business man in town.
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Bringing 2 phones out every single day? That's so
4 days ago
Pat FaceBook scam In action compliments of Susan Hill! I just copied and pasted it ..I won $300K from face book....lol Susan Hill Thursday 12:22pm Hello How are you doing today ? Me:I'm good and you? a few seconds ago Susan: Am pretty good Sorry for th Read more ... e late response Thats okay Am Susan from the Facebook company I was asked to get you contacted by the Facebook board of director Really? Yes for what? Am here to pass you some vital information About what? Have you heard about the ongoing Facebook lottery promo ? Susan: We are pleased to inform you of the result that just concluded annual Final draws held on the( Me: wow did I win something? Yes Susan: Your JavaScript: void (0) Name was among the 20 Lucky winners who won $300,000.00USD (Three Hundred thousand united state dollars) each on the Facebook group promotion Award The online draws was Conducted by a random selection of name you where picked By an Advanced automated random computer search from the Facebook Me: Great..I don't know what to say Susan: Our aimed at saying A BIG THANK YOU to all our users for making Facebook their number one means to connect, communicate, relate and hook up with their families and friends over the years. Me: Well thanks..How do I get the money? Susan: Am the online agent to instruct all winners on how to get their winning prize. I will like to know if you are fully ready to claim your winning prize. so i can instruct you on what to do now ? Me: Yes Susan: Do you know how send and email ?because you will have to forward some information to the payment department for verification. ou will have to contact the promo coordinator for him to let you know more about your winning you are going to send him the information below FULL NAME: FULL CONTACT ADDRESS: MOBILE PHONE NUMBER: OCCUPATION: MARITAL STATUS / SEX AND AGE: NATIONALITY / COUNTRY EMAIL ADDRESS : NEAREST AIRPORT : Here is there email address ; facebookonlineprogs234@gmail.com Once you forward the information to the promo coordinator they will know you are the rightful owner of the winning prize and they will tell you what to do. You are welcome You have to do that now and get back to me for me to instruct you on what to do next. Me: Okay..Get back to you soon Susan : I will also advice you to make sure all the information are valid and correct to avoid the cancellation of your winnings fund. Do that and get back to me now.
4 days ago
Kartiko This is the phone I tell you every time we discuss about phone, inexpensive, but promising a great performance. If you want to buy it, prepare your self coz every time it restock it always sold out in seconds (not minutes, hours, or even days)
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Ang
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Jay Camera , ram and mobile look attracted me the most.Anshuman Pattanaik Ramesh Agarwal
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Qualcomm Snapdragon 800 2.3GHz processor, 5-inch I
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Muhammad
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Win an original Adidas Brazuca and a Pakistan Nati
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Kelvin
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Dickson Low price~Nice product~good quality~ Unbelievable. Miracle of Mobile market. Fennie Ang Owen Lee
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Wallace
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Ashutosh Golden Ball The adidas Golden Ball is given to the outstanding player at the FIFA World Cup. The players who finish second and third are given the Silver Ball and Bronze Ball respectively.[3] • Golden Ball: Lionel Messi • Silver Ball: Thomas M Read more ... ller • Bronze Ball: Arjen Robben On 11 July 2014, the FIFA Technical Study Group announced the ten-player shortlist for the Golden Ball award.[4] • Ángel di María • Mats Hummels • Toni Kroos • Philipp Lahm • Javier Mascherano • Lionel Messi • Thomas Müller • Neymar • Arjen Robben • James Rodríguez Golden Boot See also: 2014 FIFA World Cup statistics § Goalscorers The adidas Golden Boot is given to the top goalscorer at the FIFA World Cup. If two or more players are tied on goals, the ranking is decided by the number of assists. If still tied, the players who played the least minutes are ranked first. The players who finish second and third are given the Silver Boot and Bronze Boot respectively.[5] • Golden Boot: James Rodríguez • Silver Boot: Thomas Müller • Bronze Boot: Neymar The top ten players were as follows:[6] Rank Player Goals Assists Minutes played 1 James Rodríguez 6 2 399' 2 Thomas Müller 5 3 682' 3 Neymar 4 1 457' 4 Lionel Messi 4 1 693' 5 Robin van Persie 4 0 548' 6 Karim Benzema 3 2 450' 7 André Schürrle 3 1 244' 8 Arjen Robben 3 1 690' 9 Enner Valencia 3 0 270' 10 Xherdan Shaqiri 3 0 387' Golden Glove The adidas Golden Glove is given to the most outstanding goalkeeper at the FIFA World Cup.[7] • Golden Glove: Manuel Neuer On 11 July 2014, the FIFA Technical Study Group announced the three-player shortlist for the Golden Glove award.[8] • Keylor Navas • Manuel Neuer • Sergio Romero Best Young Player The Hyundai Young Player Award is given to the most outstanding young player at the FIFA World Cup.[9] Players must be at most 21 years old to receive the award; for the 2014 FIFA World Cup, they must be born on or after 1 January 1993. • Best Young Player: Paul Pogba On 11 July 2014, the FIFA Technical Study Group announced the three-player shortlist for the Young Player award.[10] • Memphis Depay • Paul Pogba • Raphaël Varane FIFA Fair Play Trophy The FIFA Fair Play Award is given to the team with the tournament’s best disciplinary record. Only teams that reach the knockout phase are eligible.[11] • Fair Play Award: Colombia Man of the Match Man of the Match trophy. See also: 2014 FIFA World Cup statistics § Man of the Match The Budweiser Man of the Match was given to the best player of each match. It was decided by popular voting online, through FIFA's website, Twitter, and FIFA's mobile phone application.[12] By match Day Stage Team 1 Result Team 2 Man of the Match[13] Thursday 12 June First round of group stage matches Group A Brazil 3–1 Croatia Neymar Friday 13 June Mexico 1–0 Cameroon Giovani dos Santos Group B Spain 1–5 Netherlands Robin van Persie Chile 3–1 Australia Alexis Sánchez Saturday 14 June Group C Colombia 3–0 Greece James Rodríguez Ivory Coast 2–1 Japan Yaya Touré Group D Uruguay 1–3 Costa Rica Joel Campbell England 1–2 Italy Mario Balotelli Sunday 15 June Group E Switzerland 2–1 Ecuador Xherdan Shaqiri France 3–0 Honduras Karim Benzema Group F Argentina 2–1 Bosnia and Herzegovina Lionel Messi Monday 16 June Iran 0–0 Nigeria John Obi Mikel Group G Germany 4–0 Portugal Thomas Müller Ghana 1–2 United States Clint Dempsey Tuesday 17 June Group H Belgium 2–1 Algeria Kevin De Bruyne Russia 1–1 South Korea Son Heung-min Second round of group stage matches Group A Brazil 0–0 Mexico Guillermo Ochoa Wednesday 18 June Cameroon 0–4 Croatia Mario Mandžukić Group B Spain 0–2 Chile Eduardo Vargas Australia 2–3 Netherlands Arjen Robben Thursday 19 June Group C Colombia 2–1 Ivory Coast James Rodríguez Japan 0–0 Greece Keisuke Honda Group D Uruguay 2–1 England Luis Suárez Friday 20 June Italy 0–1 Costa Rica Bryan Ruiz Group E Switzerland 2–5 France Karim Benzema Honduras 1–2 Ecuador Enner Valencia Saturday 21 June Group F Argentina 1–0 Iran Lionel Messi Nigeria 1–0 Bosnia and Herzegovina Peter Odemwingie Group G Germany 2–2 Ghana Mario Götze Sunday 22 June United States 2–2 Portugal Tim Howard Group H Belgium 1–0 Russia Eden Hazard South Korea 2–4 Algeria Islam Slimani Monday 23 June Third round of group stage matches Group A Cameroon 1–4 Brazil Neymar Croatia 1–3 Mexico Rafael Márquez Group B Australia 0–3 Spain David Villa Netherlands 2–0 Chile Arjen Robben Tuesday 24 June Group C Japan 1–4 Colombia Jackson Martinez Greece 2–1 Ivory Coast Giorgos Samaras Group D Italy 0–1 Uruguay Gianluigi Buffon Costa Rica 0–0 England Keylor Navas Wednesday 25 June Group E Honduras 0–3 Switzerland Xherdan Shaqiri Ecuador 0–0 France Alexander Domínguez Group F Nigeria 2–3 Argentina Lionel Messi Bosnia and Herzegovina 3–1 Iran Edin Džeko Thursday 26 June Group G United States 0–1 Germany Thomas Müller Portugal 2–1 Ghana Cristiano Ronaldo Group H South Korea 0–1 Belgium Jan Vertonghen Algeria 1–1 Russia Islam Slimani Friday 27 June Rest day Saturday 28 June Knockout stage matches Round of 16 Brazil 1–1 (a.e.t.) (3–2 pen.) Chile Júlio César Colombia 2–0 Uruguay James Rodríguez Sunday 29 June Netherlands 2–1 Mexico Guillermo Ochoa Costa Rica 1–1 (a.e.t.) (5–3 pen.) Greece Keylor Navas Monday 30 June France 2–0 Nigeria Paul Pogba Germany 2–1 (a.e.t.) Algeria Raïs M'Bolhi Tuesday 1 July Argentina 1–0 (a.e.t.) Switzerland Lionel Messi Belgium 2–1 (a.e.t.) United States Tim Howard Wednesday 2 July Rest days Thursday 3 July Friday 4 July Quarter-finals Brazil 2–1 Colombia David Luiz France 0–1 Germany Mats Hummels Saturday 5 July Netherlands 0–0 (a.e.t.) (4–3 pen.) Costa Rica Keylor Navas Argentina 1–0 Belgium Gonzalo Higuaín Sunday 6 July Rest days Monday 7 July Tuesday 8 July Semi-finals Brazil 1–7 Germany Toni Kroos Wednesday 9 July Netherlands 0–0 (a.e.t.) (2–4 pen.) Argentina Sergio Romero Thursday 10 July Rest days Friday 11 July Saturday 12 July Third place match Brazil 0–3 Netherlands Arjen Robben Sunday 13 July Final Germany 1–0 (a.e.t.) Argentina Mario Götze Multiple winners Player Awards Matches played Lionel Messi 4 7 Keylor Navas 3 5 Arjen Robben 3 7 James Rodríguez 3 5 Karim Benzema 2 5 Mario Götze 2 6 Tim Howard 2 4 Thomas Müller 2 7 Neymar 2 5 Guillermo Ochoa 2 4 Xherdan Shaqiri 2 4 Islam Slimani 2 4 All-Star Team The Castrol Index that evaluated player performances through statistical data finished with the following players leading each position (Toni Kroos was the overall leader):[14] Goalkeepers Defenders Midfielders Forwards Manuel Neuer (Germany) Marcos Rojo (Argentina) Mats Hummels (Germany) Thiago Silva (Brazil) Stefan de Vrij (Netherlands) Oscar (Brazil) Toni Kroos (Germany) Philipp Lahm (Germany) James Rodríguez (Colombia) Arjen Robben (Netherlands) Thomas Müller (Germany) Prize money The total prize money on offer for the tournament was confirmed by FIFA as US$576 million (including payments of US$70 million to domestic clubs), a 37 percent increase from the amount allocated in the 2010 tournament.[15] Before the tournament, each of the 32 entrants received US$1.5 million for preparation costs. At the tournament, the prize money was distributed as follows: • US$8 million – To each team eliminated at the group stage (16 teams) • US$9 million – To each team eliminated in the round of 16 (8 teams) • US$14 million – To each team eliminated in the quarter-finals (4 teams) • US$20 million – Fourth placed team • US$22 million – Third placed team • US$25 million – Runner-up • US$35 million – Winner Goal of the tournament The Goal of the Tournament (presented by Sony) is decided by online voting. The following 15 goals are in the shortlist as selected by FIFA.com:[16] Date Player Match (score after goal) 13 June 2014 Robin van Persie Netherlands 5–1 Spain (1–1) 14 June 2014 Claudio Marchisio Italy 2–1 England (1–0) 15 June 2014 Lionel Messi Argentina 2–1 Bosnia and Herzegovina (2–0) 16 June 2014 André Ayew Ghana 1–2 United States (1–1) 18 June 2014 Tim Cahill Australia 2–3 Netherlands (1–1) 20 June 2014 Granit Xhaka Switzerland 2–5 France (2–5) 23 June 2014 David Villa Spain 3–0 Australia (1–0) 24 June 2014 James Rodríguez Colombia 4–1 Japan (4–1) 25 June 2014 Lionel Messi Argentina 3–2 Nigeria (2–1) 25 June 2014 Xherdan Shaqiri Switzerland 3–0 Honduras (1–0) 28 June 2014 James Rodríguez Colombia 2–0 Uruguay (1–0) 4 July 2014 David Luiz Brazil 2–1 Colombia (2–0) 5 July 2014 Gonzalo Higuaín Argentina 1–0 Belgium (1–0) 8 July 2014 André Schürrle Germany 7–1 Brazil (7–0) 13 July 2014 Mario Götze Germany 1–0 Argentina (1–0)
4 days ago
Fennie
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Tan
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Karthik Please logon to the official site and register to buy the power of a mobile # Mi3. Santhu Ambati Dinesh Kumar
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Qualcomm Snapdragon 800 2.3GHz processor, 5-inch I
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